[vpFREE] RE: Bob Dancer's LV Advisor Column - 1 OCT 2013

under Case 2, where it says:

 

BP: KQ, KJ, QJ > SF3 2h2i; SF3 1h1i; SF3 0h0i usually

 

I might be missing something here, but I can't think of any time that "KQ, KJ, QJ > SF3 2h2i; SF3 1h1i" would be correct in 8/5 Bonus Poker unless you had a sufficiently high progressive, but I think the article is talking about regular 8/5 Bonus strategy.

 

For the case with, SF3 2h2i, that would be saying that you drop a suited 9 from KQ9, KJ9 and a suited 8 from

QJ8

The KQ, KJ, QJ can't be a different suit than the SF3 2h2i or you would have a high pair that you hold instead.

 

The only relevant  SF3 1h1i would be J98  because QT9  would make a straight or QQ with any KQ, KJ, QJ   and JT8  would make a KQJT or JJ. And with J98  vs  KQ , you hold the J98  .

 

Like I said I could be missing something here, but I can't seem to think of any time that KQ, KJ, QJ > SF3 2h2i; SF3 1h1i is correct barring progressives...

 

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